No fair if you already know the answer.
I can prove that 2 =1. Can you show me how I'm wrong?
Assume a = b != 0. IOW, a and b are two equal quantities which are not zero.
If a = b
then a^2 = ab
and a^2 - b^2 = ab -b^2
factorizing
(a - b)(a + b) = b(a-b)
divide both sides by (a - b)
a + b = b
Since a = b
then 2b = b
and dividing both sides by b leaves
2 = 1.
This is obviously wrong, but where does the proof veer off course?
I can prove that 2 =1. Can you show me how I'm wrong?
Assume a = b != 0. IOW, a and b are two equal quantities which are not zero.
If a = b
then a^2 = ab
and a^2 - b^2 = ab -b^2
factorizing
(a - b)(a + b) = b(a-b)
divide both sides by (a - b)
a + b = b
Since a = b
then 2b = b
and dividing both sides by b leaves
2 = 1.
This is obviously wrong, but where does the proof veer off course?